Gillam/Snader 89-4

Jason Sash ( Jason.T.Sash@EMCIns.Com )
Fri, 29 Oct 1999 10:44:00 -0500 (Central Daylight Time)

I have a question about the fourth question on the 1989 exam (CSM
question B7 of Gillam/Snader RT).

I don't follow the CSM solution so I went back to the basic formula:

P = E*P + (A+T+p)*P + (i+u)*EP + h*P

The revised premium will be

P' = (1-k)*E*P + (A+T+p')*P' + (i+u)*(1-k)*E*P + h*P
where p' is the revised profit load.

Now if you divide both sides by P and combine a few terms

P'/P = (1-k)*E*(1+i+u) + (A+T+p')*(P'/P) + h

simplifying further,
P'/P = [(1-k)*E*(1+i+u)+h]/[1-A-T-p']

Now the problem states that the broker wants P' to be 40% of the
original P.

Filling in the numbers from the problem,

0.4 = [(1-0.625)*0.65*(1+.030+.025)+.065]/[1-0.15-0.030-p']

and so p'=0.0146 which is different from the -0.0035 that the CSM has.

Could someone please clue me in where I am wrong or if the manual is
wrong? Thanks!

----------------------
Jason Sash
Jason.T.Sash@EMCIns.com