If you use MR = P x [1 - 1/(absolute value of elasticity)] and set equal to
zero, then the absolute value of elasticity must equal 1. It follows that
the absolute value of [100 x change in Q / Q] / [100 x change in P / P] = 1.
It seems that the only point where this is true is at quantity (and price) =
5.5.
At Q = 6, isn't elasticity = -5/6?
Is anyone willing to set my "friend" straight?
Hank Itri
Harleysville Insurance Companies
Corporate Actuarial Services, B2 West
215.256.5840
<mailto:hitri@harleysvillegroup.com>