Aircraft(A) frequency: 0 loss: e^(-0.1)=0.905; 1 loss: 0.1*e^(-0.1)=0.090; 2
losses: 0.1^2*e^(-0.1)/2=0.005
Marine(M) frequency: 0 loss: e^(-0.2)=0.82; 1 loss: 0.2*e^(-0.2)=0.16; 2
losses: 0.2^2*e^(-0.2)/2=0.02
Prob. Loss Expect Loss
1A & 0M .0738 0 0
1A & 1M .0144 20,000,000 288,000
0A & 2M .0181 30,000,000 543,000
0A & 1M .1448 10,000,000 1,448,000
2A & 0M .0041 10,000,000 41,000
2,320,000
Therefore the answer is D. Thanks.