Under de Moivre, the solution has calculated t/q(x)=1/(80-x). How did
they come up with this. Isn't de Moivre s(x)=w-x/w which would lead
to tpx of w-x-t/w-x.
In order to find t/q(x). We need tpx*qx+t. Am I wrong?
-Brian